1. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, came into force on :
A) 1st July 1872
B) 1st September 1872
C) 1st January 1873
D) 15th August 1872
Answer: B
2. The Indian Evidence Act was drafted by:
A) Lord Macaulay
B) Sir Henry Maine
C) Sir James Fitzjames Stephen
D) Lord Campbell
Answer: C
3. The Law of Evidence is:
A) Lex Fori (Law of the Forum/Court)
B) Lex Loci (Law of the Place)
C) Lex Situs
D) Lex Talionis
Answer: A
4. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of “Court” under Section 3?
A) All Judges
B) All Magistrates
C) Arbitrators
D) Persons legally authorized to take evidence
Answer: C
5. A “Fact” under the Act means:
A) Physical facts only
B) Psychological facts only
C) Both Physical and Psychological facts
D) Only facts proven in Court
Answer: C
6. “Relevancy” under the Act is based on:
A) Logical relevancy
B) Legal relevancy
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer: C
7. The doctrine of “Res Gestae” is embodied in which Section?
A) Section 5
B) Section 6
C) Section 7
D) Section 8
Answer: B
8. Motive, Preparation, and Previous or Subsequent Conduct are relevant under:
A) Section 7
B) Section 8
C) Section 9
D) Section 11
Answer: B
9. Test Identification Parade (TIP) is relevant under:
A) Section 8
B) Section 9
C) Section 10
D) Section 11
Answer: B
10. “Plea of Alibi” is governed by:
A) Section 10
B) Section 11
C) Section 12
D) Section 13
Answer: B
11. Admissions are defined in:
A) Section 17
B) Section 18
C) Section 19
D) Section 20
Answer: A
12. A confession made to a Police Officer is:
A) Admissible
B) Inadmissible
C) Admissible with permission of the Court
D) Admissible if witnessed by a third party
Answer: B (Section 25)
13. Which section allows the “discovery of a fact” based on information received from the accused in police custody?
A) Section 24
B) Section 25
C) Section 26
D) Section 27
Answer: D
14. A confession made by one accused against a co-accused is relevant under:
A) Section 28
B) Section 29
C) Section 30
D) Section 31
Answer: C
15. “Dying Declaration” is a relevant fact under:
A) Section 32(1)
B) Section 32(2)
C) Section 33
D) Section 34
Answer: A
16. For a Dying Declaration to be admissible, the person making it:
A) Must be under expectation of death
B) Need not be under expectation of death
C) Must make it before a Magistrate only
D) Must die immediately after the statement
Answer: B (In Indian Law)
17. Opinion of an Expert is relevant under:
A) Section 44
B) Section 45
C) Section 47
D) Section 50
Answer: B
18. Opinion as to handwriting is relevant under:
A) Section 45
B) Section 47
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer: B
19. In civil cases, character to prove conduct imputed is:
A) Very relevant
B) Irrelevant
C) Relevant at the discretion of the Judge
D) Always admissible
Answer: B (Section 52)
20. In criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused has a “Bad Character” is:
A) Always relevant
B) Irrelevant, unless evidence of good character has been given
C) Relevant to prove motive
D) None of the above
Answer: B (Section 54)
21. Facts of which the Court must take “Judicial Notice” need not be proved. This is stated in:
A) Section 55
B) Section 56
C) Section 58
D) Section 60
Answer: B
22. Oral evidence must, in all cases, be:
A) Hearsay
B) Direct
C) Indirect
D) Circumstantial
Answer: B (Section 60)
23. Contents of documents may be proved by:
A) Primary evidence only
B) Secondary evidence only
C) Either Primary or Secondary evidence
D) Oral evidence
Answer: C (Section 61)
24. A “Certified Copy” of a document is:
A) Primary Evidence
B) Secondary Evidence
C) Substantive Evidence
D) Hearsay Evidence
Answer: B (Section 63)
25. Electronic records were included in the Evidence Act in the year:
A) 1998
B) 2000
C) 2002
D) 2005
Answer: B (Information Technology Act)
26. Admissibility of electronic records is dealt with under:
A) Section 65A and 65B
B) Section 66A and 66B
C) Section 67
D) Section 70
Answer: A
27. A document is considered “Ancient” if it is:
A) 10 years old
B) 20 years old
C) 30 years old
D) 50 years old
Answer: C (Section 90)
28. “Burden of Proof” (Onus Probandi) lies on:
A) The person who asserts the fact
B) The Court
C) The Defendant only
D) The Police
Answer: A (Section 101)
29. The Burden of Proof as to any particular fact lies on:
A) The Prosecution
B) The person who wishes the Court to believe in its existence
C) The Accused
D) The Judge
Answer: B (Section 103)
30. Section 112 of the Act provides a “Conclusive Proof” regarding:
A) Death
B) Legitimacy of a child
C) Marriage
D) Insanity
Answer: B
31. The “Presumption of Death” arises if a person is not heard of for:
A) 3 years
B) 7 years
C) 12 years
D) 20 years
Answer: B (Section 108)
32. The Doctrine of Estoppel is found in:
A) Section 110
B) Section 115
C) Section 118
D) Section 120
Answer: B
33. Who is a competent witness?
A) Everyone who understands the questions put to them
B) Only adults
C) Only persons with a degree
D) Only eye-witnesses
Answer: A (Section 118)
34. A “Dumb Witness” (one unable to speak) gives evidence in open court by writing. This evidence is deemed to be:
A) Secondary Evidence
B) Oral Evidence
C) Documentary Evidence
D) Inadmissible
Answer: B (Section 119)
35. “Privileged Communications” between husband and wife are protected under:
A) Section 120
B) Section 121
C) Section 122
D) Section 126
Answer: C
36. Professional communication between a Lawyer and Client is protected under:
A) Section 124
B) Section 126
C) Section 129
D) Both B and C
Answer: D
37. An “Accomplice” is a competent witness against an accused person under:
A) Section 130
B) Section 133
C) Section 134
D) Section 114
Answer: B
38. The Evidence Act requires how many witnesses to prove a fact?
A) At least two
B) No particular number
C) One eye-witness and one expert
D) At least three
Answer: B (Section 134)
39. Examination of a witness by the party who calls him is called:
A) Cross-examination
B) Re-examination
C) Examination-in-chief
D) Leading examination
Answer: C (Section 137)
40. Examination of a witness by the adverse party is called:
A) Examination-in-chief
B) Cross-examination
C) Re-examination
D) Hostile examination
Answer: B (Section 137)
41. Leading questions may be asked in:
A) Examination-in-chief
B) Re-examination
C) Cross-examination
D) None of the above
Answer: C (Section 143)
42. Leading questions may NOT be asked in Examination-in-chief without the Court’s permission, except if they are:
A) Introductory
B) Undisputed
C) Already sufficiently proved
D) All of the above
Answer: D (Section 142)
43. A witness can “Refresh his Memory” under:
A) Section 145
B) Section 154
C) Section 159
D) Section 161
Answer: C
44. “Hostile Witness” is dealt with under:
A) Section 153
B) Section 154
C) Section 155
D) Section 156
Answer: B
45. Improper admission or rejection of evidence is NOT a ground for a new trial if there was sufficient evidence otherwise. This is stated in:
A) Section 165
B) Section 166
C) Section 167
D) Section 160
Answer: C
46. Which section gives the Judge the power to put questions or order production of documents?
A) Section 161
B) Section 164
C) Section 165
D) Section 166
Answer: C
47. “May Presume” means the Court:
A) Must regard a fact as proved
B) May either regard the fact as proved or call for proof
C) Is bound to assume the fact
D) None of the above
Answer: B (Section 4)
48. Evidence of “Hostile Witness”:
A) Must be rejected entirely
B) Can be relied upon partly by either party
C) Is only admissible for the defense
D) Is not evidence at all
Answer: B
49. Presumption as to dowry death is given under:
A) Section 113A
B) Section 113B
C) Section 114A
D) Section 111A
Answer: B
50. The “Best Evidence Rule” is the core principle of:
A) Oral evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
Answer: C
